Tuesday, September 25, 2007

The Afflictions of Christ: Part 2

In an earlier post, I explained Paul's words in Col 1:24 as meaning that the objective redemption has been fully accomplished, but the subjective redemption is still required. It is in this way that he is able to say that there is something "lacking" in the afflictions of Christ.

Well, "daveski" from the HCR forum posted in disagreement with me. Here is my short response to him. He requested that we do this via email, so stay tuned for further developments.

Pax Christi,
phatcatholic
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while i understand the contoversy of this verse, particularly because of the word "lacking", i must disagree with your analysis of this verse. your assertion that we must somehow suffer to merit the consumation of our salvation diminishes the sufficiency of Christ, the efficacy of the cross and Jesus' resurrection. it flies in the face of Jesus' words "It is finished!"
No it doesn't. If no application upon us of Christ's work is necessary, then every single person who has ever lived or who would live after the crucifixion would have been instantly saved as soon as Jesus said, "It is finished." Surely you don't believe that is the case, yet that is the logical conclusion of your statement. Do you understand what I'm saying, or do I need to explain that?

"It is finished" means, "I have now merited the grace for the salvation of mankind," not "Everyone is now instantly saved." All I'm saying is that when Paul says that something is lacking in the afflictions of Christ, he means that Jesus suffered to earn all the grace necessary to save mankind, and now he (Paul) suffers as a minister of the gospel in order to bring people the message that will allow for the grace of the Cross to be applied to them, for their salvation.

This all seems like common sense to me, which is why I can never understand why people see it as such a radical position or say that I'm denying the sufficiency of Christ's work.

1 comment:

Randy said...

Isn't Paul the one who is suggesting something is lacking in Christ's suffering? It would be much more convincing if Dave could give us some other interpretation of this verse that does not have the same issue.

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