Hey Phat, hope you can help me. My question is this: was our Holy Mother Mary in need of redemption like everyone else but through our lords crucufixion in advance she was concieved without sin?That is true! You pretty much nailed it. Mary was not some special type of creature that was impervious to the stain of original sin. She was a human being conceived in the natural way. Thus, she was due to receive the stain of original sin just like the rest of us, and divine intervention was the only thing that could keep this from happening.
The pre-existant Son, being beyond the bounds of time, is able to take the grace from the Cross, grace that the rest of us receive after the work is "finished" (Jn 19:30) and apply it to Mary, which in time appears as a retroactive endeavor. This grace protected her from the sin of Adam, which caused her to be immaculately conceived, or conceived without sin. Mary was saved from sin by this special act of God, which is why she is able to rejoice in God her "Savior" (Lk 1:47).
I hope that answers your question. I have addressed the Immaculate Conception in other blog posts, which may be helpful as well: